It is of course an undeniable fact, and a loudly proclaimed message that women are not allowed, to preach, teach or minister within the public congregation. If you don’t believe me just ask any traditional mainline denominational minister (man) and he will gladly direct you to the Word of God to prove that Women are not to preach. But…does the Bible REALLY say that Women are not to preach/teach. Is it non-scriptural to allow a woman to preach, teach or minister to a congregation of people?
I will examine one of the most quoted, misquoted and misinterpreted scriptures in the Word of God. One of the Scriptures that so many believe is the basis for women not to preach. I hope that once this scripture is understood, that more women ministers will be freed from the bondage imposed upon them by society and their male counterparts.
“Let the women keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but let them subject themselves, just as the Law also says. And if they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in a church.” 1 Corinthians 14:34-35(NASB)
There it is, just as the Word records it. It seems clear enough, but it raises several obvious questions that must be considered:
1. Who said women must be silent?
2. Why can’t they speak?
3. Does this include praying, singing, praising and prophesying?
4. Is this restriction for all women or only married women?
5. Where and what is the law that underscores this restriction?
Of course there are other interesting questions such as: "Why ask their husbands at home? And what if their husbands were practicing pagans?" "Did Paul assume all women were married?"
In order to formulate an intelligent scripture answer these questions needed to be answered. Let's assume this passage can be understood and accepted without any commentary. All women must remain silent during public worship since the Greek verb sigao means to be quiet, to hold one's peace. What are the implications?
Theoretically women can't serve as missionaries since they would undoubtly teach adults, including men, the way of salvation. They can't teach Sunday school. They can't sing in the sanctuary choirs (remember church music carries a message.) Many of the same churches that prohibit women teaching or preaching, do not hesitate a second when inviting women to sing in the choir or as soloist. Frankly it is hard in light of scripture to separate this effective ministry from preaching since only the method of delivery differs, the context of the message may be the same. Tradition demands that we neglect hundreds of Scripture exhorting believers to raise their voices and praise the Lord in the midst of the congregation (e.g. Ps. 95). Praise is always vocal and at times exuberant and loud (Rev. 19:1-6). If by "silence" Paul meant "absolute silence", then all women must cease to praise.

This is an outrageous conclusion but we can't have it both ways, can we? Truth is consistent! In an attempt to explain away these inconsistencies there are many arguments. Some say that Paul meant women can't preach publicly when adult males were present. Others say he was only addressing the unlearned women. Some say that in those days as in the Jewish synagogue the women sat on one side and talked to the men on the other causing confusion. Some on the defense of women say that the letter is not Pauline and was added by an early scribe paraphrasing, which undermines the trust Bible believers have in the divine inspiration and preservation of the Scriptures.
The idea that the women were talking across the church can not be correct because the Corinthian church was made up almost entirely of gentile converts. There were some Jews but the majority of believers were gentiles. Why would Paul use Jewish traditions and customs as guidelines for the Christian church?
It should be noted that 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 silences only those women with husbands (the Greek word gunaikes means “married woman”), thereby excusing the unmarried, the widows and the divorced. If this was meant for all women why did Paul single out the wives?
If Paul meant silence as traditionally interpreted, why did he contradict himself by saying women may pray and prophesy? And why would he equate the woman’s ministry with the man’s in the same statement? (1 Cor. 11:4) Would the apostle permit the women to pray and prophesy in chapter 11:5 and then reverse himself and tell them to be silent in chapter 14:34-35?
What Law prohibited women from speaking? It was not the Law of Moses! Instead it was the same law that Jesus renounced as Traditions (Matt. 15:3,Mark 7:3) These traditions refer to the regulations handed down orally from one generation to another; they formed the oral law of the Jews. Those laws are now called the Talmud an Aramaic word meaning “learning”. They are a collection of the discussions decisions, sayings and interpretations of the early scribes and rabbis, who were called Tannaim, on how to live according to the Torah, the law. These teaching and traditions gradually became law, and were accepted to be as authoritative as the written Word.
Exactly what did Paul mean in this letter to the Corinthian church? Sir William Ramsey well known for his research into the history of Christianity in Asia Minor stated: ‘We should be ready to suspect Paul is making a quotation from the letter addressed to him by the Corinthians whenever he alludes to their knowledge, or when any statement stand in marked contrast either with the immediate context or with Paul’s known views.’ The Apostle didn’t say “don’t permit,” but “it is not permitted suggesting someone else was doing the forbidding. Then “it” would be the law since it is the law that (Talmud) that says women remain silent. Nowhere does the Bible say it is a shame for a woman to speak; therefore the “law” can’t be the Bible. The other law, the oral law of the Jews, specifically directed women to remain silent.
In conclusion Paul was paraphrasing the question posed to him not making a statement. And if we read verse 36-39 we see Paul’s answer to that ridiculous request.

“Was it from you that the word of God {first} went forth? Or has it come to you only? If anyone thinks he is a prophet or spiritual, let him recognize that the things which I write to you are the Lord's commandment. But if anyone does not recognize {this,} he is not recognized. Therefore, my brethren, desire earnestly to prophesy, and do not forbid to speak in tongues. But all things must be done properly and in an orderly manner.”
To paraphrase these verses; Paul asked did God’s word come out only to men? That any man who thinks he is a prophet or spiritual must know that the things that Paul TAUGHT are the commands of the Lord. And that any man that did not recognize this was not recognized (spiritual). So he commended all brethren (mankind) to desire to prophesy (declare the word of God) and not to forbid anyone from speaking in tongues but to do so properly and in order.
These verses are Paul’s answer to the question of women speaking in church. Paul did not agree with that rule but rather renounced it and then explained what was proper and correct according to the Lord.